A question about HOL
by Dennis J. Darland
July 30, 2008
Last revised 30.07.2008 21.41 time
Copyright © 2008 Dennis J. Darland
A thought I had:
- I had thought of representing a proposition R(a,b, ..., z) in HOL as apply(R,a,b,...,z) in FOL.
- But FOL is complete while HOL is not so obviously something was wrong.
- What is wrong is that there have to be additional rules in the second [FOL like] representation for the predicates.
- E.g. (R(a,b) ∧ S(a,b)) ⇒ T(a,b) for a T = (R ∧ S).
- There must be such a T in such a HOL, but there is nothing to guarantee that there is such a T in the FOL.
- But for any HOL with a finite number of predicates, it seems to me that it could be guaranteed.
- But any such HOL could only have a finite number of individuals [according to Leibniz's Law]
- Thus it seems the incompleteness of HOL essentially depends on an infinity of primitive [indefinable]
predicates.
- But it is impossible that humans could ever know such an infinity of primitive predicates.
- Thus does the incompleteness of HOL have any practical importance?
- Or is there an error in my reasoning?
- The error, it would seem, is that Peano's axioms can be used to define an infinite number of individuals with a finite
number of predicates.
- Let aRb if b is the successor of a.
-
- Then if there is a individual '0' and for every individual a there is a b [≠ a] such that aRb.
- See Peano's axioms for full details.
- But, so restricted, this is no longer a general HOL.
- A purely general HOL, would not have such restrictions on any relation on its individuals.
- Such a relation could hold only if its individuals were countable.
- Why make such a restriction?
- Goedel does make this assumption - Goedel, "On Formally Undecidable Propositions of Principia Mathematica
and Related Systems", in van Heijennort, From Frege to Goedel, page 599.
- Goedel's theorem does not apply to a system which takes, say, real numbers, which are not countable, as its individuals.
- Or is there an error in my reasoning?
- Or take any uncountable subset of the real numbers
- I think the fact that the set of propositions of the form 'x = x' would be uncountable proves that there this logic
would have to be incomplete.
- But reconsider the countable set - does there actually have to exist a counting [i.e. successor relation] holding
just because a class is countable? Couldn't it be that for any a in some world that for any R there exist b,c,...,y,z
if aRb and bRc, ...., yRz and z = a --- or does this result in a contradiction?
- I think that if you assume that all there are, are the natural numbers, then Goedel's result follows -
but this assumption is obviously false and his result seems to depend on this assumption.
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